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Whether the CMM/DM can Appoint an Advocate in Exercise of Powers under Section 14(1A) of the SARFAESI Act?

The Hon’ble Supreme Court yesterday answered a crucial question as to whether it is open to the District Magistrate (DM) or the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (CMM) to appoint an advocate and authorise him to take possession of the secured assets and documents relating thereto and to forward the same to the secured creditor within the meaning of Section 14(1A) of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act).

The issue arises in the special leave petitions filed by the borrowers against the judgments of High Courts of Madras wherein it has been held that an advocate can be appointed by DM and CMM under Section 14(1A) of the SARFAESI Act since an advocate is regarded as an officer of the court and, therefore, is subordinate to the CMM or the DM. The same was challenged on the ground that an advocate is not a subordinate officer to the CMM or DM. The High Court of Kerala and Delhi have also taken the same view as Madras High Court.  The High Court of Bombay on the other hand has reasoned that such appointment is illegal because advocate is not a subordinate officer to the CMM or DM.

The Apex Court analysed various judgments of the High Courts starting from the earliest decision in Muhammed Ashraf & Anr. vs. Union of India & OrsAIR 2009 Kerala 14. In the said judgment, it was held that Section 14(2) of the SARFAESI Act enabled the CMM/DM to pass order even to take Police assistance and use all necessary powers in taking possession of the secured assets. The authority does not have an obligation to personally visit and take possession of the secured assets and documents. Similarly, in Sakiri Vasu vs. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (2008) 2 SCC 409, it was held that the authority can use the statutory powers to use all reasonable means to grant an effective remedy.

The Apex Court observed that although the above stated judgments attained finality because the SLP against the orders were dismissed, however, the said decision was rendered before the amendment of Section 14 and in particular insertion of sub-Section (1A). The Court then went on to observe that Section 14(1A) of the 2002 Act was inserted vide Act 1 of 2013 with effect from 15.1.2013. Therefore, the question that needs to be examined is whether the amendment has changed the earlier position.

In the case of Rahul Chaudhary vs. Andhra Bank & Ors 2020 SCC OnLine Del 284, it was held by the Hon’ble Delhi High Court that sub-section (1A) of Section 14 does not bar the appointment of advocates as receivers.

The Court started its analysis by observing that the same expression i.e. “any officer subordinate to him” has been used in several legislations, including in Articles 53, 154 and 311 of the Constitution of India. However, setting in which the expression has been used in the concerned section of the Act, legislative intent and the purpose for which such dispensation has been envisaged shall decide the real purport of the expression in each case differently.

Coming to the SARFAESI Act, the Court held that the subordination under the said Act cannot be “statutory subordination” or “administrative subordination”. The Court however leaned in favour of “functional subordination” and in order to determine the same, the Court went on to analyse the objective behind SARFAESI Act. The Act was bought into force to equip and empower the banks in India to take possession of securities and sell them and thus to facilitate securitisation of financial assets of banks. It was further underlined by the Court that the provisions of the Act “enable banks and financial institutions to realise long-term assets, manage problem of liquidity, asset liability mismatches and improve recovery by exercising powers to take possession of securities, sell them and reduce nonperforming assets by adopting measures for recovery or reconstruction”.

The banks to take possession of the secured assets are required to approach the CMM/DM by moving an application under Section 14 of the SARFAESI Act. The CMM/DM shall then take appropriate steps i.e. proceed to take possession of the secured assets and documents after passing of an order on verification of compliance of all formalities by the secured creditor referred to in the proviso in Section 14(1) of the SARFAESI Act. The CMM/DM is required to forward the same to the secured creditor at earliest.  The Court confirmed that Section 14(2) is an enabling provision and permits the CMM/DM to take such steps and use force, as may, in his opinion, be necessary. This position continues to be the same till date.

In this entire process, the Court emphasised that time is of essence and that it “cannot brook delay. This is the spirit of special enactments”. The Court also acknowledged that that firstly there is only one the CMM/DM who has to look into large number of applications. He cannot be expected to visit and take action personally in each matter. Secondly, CMM/DM is provided with limited resources which makes it difficult for him to fulfil the obligations “with utmost dispatch to uphold the spirit of the special legislation”. The Court, accordingly, held that “we are persuaded to take the view that an advocate is and must be regarded as an officer of the court and subordinate to the CMM/DM for the purposes of Section 14(1A) of the 2002 Act.”

With regard to the Sub-Section (1A) the Court clarified that it is “in the nature of an explanatory provision and it merely restates the implicit power of the CMM/DM in taking services of any officer subordinate to him. The insertion of sub-Section (1A) is not to invest a new power for the first time in the CMM/DM as such.” Therefore, the situation existing before insertion of sub-Section (1A) wherein the CMM/DM could avail the services of an advocate for taking possession of the secured assets and documents relating thereto, continues to be the same after the insertion of sub Section (1A). The Court, however, added a rider that the officer so appointed by the CMM/DM ought to be the one who is capable of executing the orders passed by the authority.

The Court also analysed the meaning of the word “any”. The Court observed that it has not been defined in the SARFAESI Act. As per Black Laws Dictionary it is often synonymous with “either”, “every” or “all”. Similarly, “officer” means someone who holds an office of trust, authority, or command. As per P. Ramanatha Aiyar’s Advanced Law Lexicon “Subordinate” means belonging to an inferior rank, grade, class or order.

The Court held that under Section 14, taking possession of the secured assets and documents relating thereto is a “ministerial step” which can be taken by the CMM/DM himself or through any officer subordinate to him, including the Advocate Commissioner.

The Court further held that the Advocate Commissioner is not a new concept. The advocates are appointed as Court Commissioner to perform diverse administrative and ministerial work. It has been reiterated in various judgments that an advocate is an officer of the court.

The Court further went on to state that “it is well established that an advocate is a guardian of constitutional morality and justice equally with the Judge. He has an important duty as that of a Judge. He bears responsibility towards the society and is expected to act with utmost sincerity and commitment to the cause of justice. He has a duty to the court first. As an officer of the court, he owes allegiance to a higher cause and cannot indulge in consciously misstating the facts or for that matter conceal any material fact within his knowledge.”

The Court additionally observed that the Central Government has also framed no rules in reference to sub-Section (1A) of Section 14 of the SARFAESI Act putting any restrictions on CMM/DM to appoint Advocate Commissioner. Further on applying the “functional subordination” test, the Court was of the opinion that sub-Section (1A) of Section 14 of the 2002 Act does not impede the CMM/DM to engage services of an advocate who is an officer of the Court. The advocate so appointed needs to be on the rolls in the Office of the CMM/DM or in public service. The Court brushed the apprehensions of the borrowers as misplaced and added that the appointment of an advocate would rather ensure that “responsibility and duty will be discharged honestly and in accordance with rules of law.”

The Court, on the basis of the reasoning given, set aside the judgment of the Bombay High Court.

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Whether an appeal in a consumer matter would be governed under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 or under the 1986 Act?

Recently in the matter of ECGC Limited v. Mokul Shriram EPC JV [Civil Appeal No. 1842 of 2021] (hereinafter referred to as “Appeal”) decided on February 15, 2021, the Hon’ble Apex Court clarified that onerous pre-condition of payment of 50% of the amount awarded, in the event of filing of an appeal, will not be applicable to the complaints filed prior to the commencement of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (hereinafter referred to as “2019 Act”).

In the present Appeal, the Appellant had assailed order passed by the National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission directing the Appellant to pay a sum of Rs. 265.01 Crores along with interest @ 10% p.a. to the Complainant. The complaint was filed under Section 21(a)(i) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (hereinafter referred to as “1986 Act”) on account of non-payment for invoices issued by the Complainant for the work done under the contract. The said complaint was allowed on 27.1.2021.

The issue arose out of an application filed by the Appellant before the Hon’ble Court in the said Appeal wherein the Appellant prayed to entertain the appeal as per the provisions of the 1986 Act. Therefore, the question before the Hon’ble Apex Court was whether the appeal would be governed under the 2019 Act or under the 1986 Act.

As per Section 67 of the 2019 Act, an appellant is required to deposit fifty per cent of the amount directed to be paid as a pre-requisite of filing the appeal. Under proviso to Section 23 of the 1986 Act, on the other hand, an appellant was required to pay fifty per cent of the amount or fifty thousand rupees, whichever is less.  It was contended on behalf of the Appellant in the application that the condition of deposit of 50% of the amount under the 2019 Act is more onerous than what was provided under the 1986 Act wherein an upper limit of Rs. 50,000/- was provided. The Appellant further relied upon Section 107 of the 2019 Act and Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897. It was argued that unless a different intention appears, the repeal shall not affect any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under any enactment so repealed as per Clause (c) of Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1987. It was further contended that as per Clause (e) of section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1987, the repeal shall not affect any  legal proceeding or remedy in respect of any such right, privilege, obligation, liability, penalty, forfeiture or punishment which may be imposed as if the repealing Act or the Regulation has not been passed. It was submitted that as per the relevant provisions, the right to file an appeal under the 1986 Act has accrued in favour of the Appellant in terms of Clause (c) of Section 6 of the General Clauses Act at the time of filing of complaint.

In this regard it was hence pertinent to be examined by the Court what is the nature of right to appeal and when does it vest in the parties.

The Hon’ble Apex Court analysed the judgments cited by the Appellant. In Hoosein Kasam Dada (India) Ltd. v. State of Madhya Pradesh & Ors [AIR 1953 SC 221] a similar question w.r.t. the Central Provinces and Berar Sales Tax Act, 1947 was involved. The amendment made the pre-requisite for filing the appeal more onerous. In the said case it was held as quoted in the judgment also –

The above decisions quite firmly establish and our decisions in Janardan Reddy v. State [(1950) SCR 941] and in Ganpat Rai v. Agarwal Chamber of Commerce Ltd. [(1952) SCJ 564] uphold the principle that a right of appeal is not merely a matter of procedure. It is a matter of substantive right. This right of appeal from the decision of an inferior tribunal to a superior tribunal becomes vested in a party when proceedings are first initiated in, and before a decision is given by, the inferior court. In the language of Jenkins, C.J. in Nana bin Aba v. Shaik bin Andu to disturb an existing right of appeal is not a mere alteration in procedure. Such a vested right cannot be taken away except by express enactment or necessary intendment. An intention to interfere with or to impair or imperil such a vested right cannot be presumed unless such intention be clearly manifested by express words or necessary implication.”

It was further explained that “the pre-existing right of appeal is not destroyed by the amendment if the amendment is not made retrospective by express words or necessary intendment. The fact that the pre-existing right of appeal continues to exist must, in its turn, necessarily imply that the old law which created that right of appeal must also exist to support the continuation of that right. As the old law continues to exist for the purpose of supporting the preexisting right of appeal that old law must govern the exercise and enforcement of that right of appeal and there can then be no question of the amended provision preventing the exercise of that right.”

The judgment was later approved by the Constitutional Bench in Garikapati Veeraya v. N. Subbiah Choudhry & Ors AIR 1957 SC 540. Applying the same principles in State of Bombay v. M/s. Supreme General Films Exchange Ltd. & Anr AIR 1960 SC 980, it was held that the court fees applicable on the Memorandum of Appeal was one that was applicable prior to the amendment of the Court Fees Act, 1870 and not as per the amendment in the Act. It was held, “It is thus clear that in a long line of decisions approved by this Court and at least in one given by this Court, it has been held that an impairment of the right of appeal by putting a new restriction thereon or imposing a more onerous condition is not a matter of procedure only; it impairs or imperils a substantive right and an enactment which does so is not retrospective unless it says so expressly or by necessary intendment.”

Similarly in K. Raveendranathan Nair & Anr. v. Commissioner of Income Tax & Ors (2017) 9 SCC 355 it was held that the relevant date for paying the court fee would be when the proceedings were initiated in the lowest court and not when the appeal was preferred.  Similarly, judgments in Ramesh Singh & Anr. v. Cinta Devi & Ors (1996) 3 SCC 142 and M/s Gurcharan Singh Baldev Singh v. Yashwant Singh & Ors. (1992) 1 SCC 428 with respect to the right of appeal as provided under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1939 which was repealed by Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, were also relied upon. The counsel for the Respondent, on the other hand, averred that the amendment is procedural in nature and thus always retrospective. The procedure includes the manner and form of filing of appeal, pre-deposit and limitation. [Thirumalai Chemicals Limited v. Union of India & Ors. 1 (2011) 6 SCC 739]. The Court, however, after considering the cases cited by the Respondent, held that the judgments were not applicable to the issues involved in the application. The Court, therefore concluded that onerous condition of payment of 50% of the amount awarded will not be applicable to the complaints filed prior to the commencement of the 2019 Act.

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Scope of Inquiry for Resisting Enforcement of a Foreign Award under Section 48 (2)(b) of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

An Enforcement Petition, for enforcing  a Foreign Arbitral Award dated 19.06.2020 passed in ICC Arbitration between EIG (Mauritius) (Petitioner) and McNally Bharat Engineering Company Limited (Respondent), was filed before the Single Bench of Calcutta High Court under section 48(2)(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (1996 Act). The Enforcement Petition was opposed by the Respondent on the grounds that enforcement would be contrary to the fundamental policy of Indian law.

The dispute arose out of a Shareholders Agreement and an Agreement (executed on 09.10.2009) that gave the Petitioner right to acquire shares in the wholly owned subsidiary (WOS) of the Respondent – McNally Sayaji Engineering Limited (MSEL) and also gave Put Right to Petitioner along with providing for a series of exit mechanisms. The Shareholder Agreement also provided for specific obligations on the Respondent and MSEL including requiring the Respondent and MSEL to list the shares of MSEL on the Bombay Stock Exchange or the National Stock Exchange or to make a public offer of MSEL’s shares on these exchanges by 30.06.2012 failing which the Petitioner could exercise its Put Right. Further, the Agreement required the Respondent, if legally able or otherwise, to arrange for a third party to purchase, at the option of Petitioner, a portion of the shares held by it at the “Put Price”. The “Put Price” was the total amount invested by Petitioner for the Put Shares plus an amount equal to 22% compounded annual rate of return on the invested amount. The valuation was to be done for the Put Shares and if the petitioner’s Put Right was not acted upon, the Petitioner had the right to require the respondent to transfer the Put Shares to another party. The parties in the agreements further represented that performance under the Shareholder’s Agreement would not be in conflict with any applicable law.

As the condition of listing the shares of MSEL was not fulfilled and the re-negotiation of the terms on exit option also failed, the Petitioner gave the Put Notice in 2017 to the Respondent. The Respondent, however, informed the Petitioner that it would not recognize the Put Notice as it was contrary to Indian law. The same contention was also taken by the Respondent before the Arbitral Tribunal.

The majority in the Arbitral Tribunal comprising of three arbitrators decided in favour of the Petitioner and directed the Respondent to make payment of amount equivalent to the Put Price and on payment of the said amount transfer of shares held by the Petitioner in favour of the Respondent. The Tribunal reasoned that the Put Option required the Respondent to arrange a non-resident third party to purchase the shares if it was legally unable to do so itself by reason of which Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) did not apply to the said transaction. Interestingly, as per the minority, the Put Option ran contrary to the FEMA and also the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956  (SCRA) and was therefore not enforceable.

The Calcutta High Court therefore framed two issues for its determination –

(i)                  What is the extent of inquiry permitted under Section 48(2)(b) of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

(ii)                Whether the Award violates SCRA and FEMA?

The Court deliberated on provisions under Sections 46 and 47 of the 1996 Act which mandate that a Foreign Award shall be treated as binding for all purposes and further under section 48 of the 1996 Act in which the language clearly indicates that the grounds to refuse enforcement of arbitral award are limited only to those stated in 48(1). The only additional ground is provided under Section 48(2)(b) where the enforcement of the award may be refused when such enforcement would be contrary to the ‘public policy of India’, the term having been explained in narrow terms in the Explanation under Section 48(2)(b). The Court further compared the grounds provided under section 34 with that of section 48 of the 1996 Act and stated that the fact that ‘patent illegality’ as a ground of challenge is absent in Section 48, it goes on to show that “the momentum towards enforcement and a deemed decree of a court is contemplated without speed-breakers unless a party furnishes proof of existence of the conditions under 48(1) or the court finds the enforcement failing the tests under 48(2)”.

The Court analysed the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in Renusagar Power Co. Ltd. vs. General Electric Co. 1994 Supp (1) SCC 644 which was reiterated in Cruz City 1 Mauritius Holdings vs. Unitech Limited; 2017 SCC Online Del 7810 by the Delhi High Court in which it was held that any contravention of a provision of an enactment is not synonymous with contravention of the fundamental policy of Indian law. The judgment in Cruz City 1 was approved by the Supreme Court in Vijay Karia vs. PrysmianCavi E Sistemi SRL; (2020) 11 SCC 1. The Calcutta High Court therefore concluded that, “the threshold for breach of the fundamental policy of Indian law must be a breach of the most basic principles of Indian law which forms the substratum of the laws of the country.” The Court further held that Section 48 does not permit review on merits of the dispute and stated that “The mandate of Section 48(2)(b) makes it clear that the statutory intent is to curtail the inquiry on the violation of the fundamental policy of Indian law within the periphery of the obvious without delving into the merits of the dispute.”

To determine the second issue, the Court analysed the findings of the Arbitral Tribunal and observed that the conclusions of the Arbitral Tribunal on issues regarding SCRA and FEMA was based on a reasonable and commercial interpretation of the Shareholder’s Agreement upon considering the commercial intentions of the parties and deliberating on the relevant case law on the subject. The Court was of the opinion that, “For an Arbitral Award as complete and comprehensive as the one under consideration, any further inquiry into the transaction documents or the construction of the relevant clauses therein or the events culminating in the dispute or even the provisions of the SCRA or the FEMA would amount to an exercise which has precisely been taken out of the present statutory framework.”

The court decided not to interfere with the interpretation of the Arbitral Tribunal on the ground of public policy while deciding on the enforcement of the Award. The Court, while relying on the decision of Supreme Court in VinayKaria and Bombay High Court in Cruz City which was further relied upon by the Bombay High Court in Banyan Tree Growth Capital LLC vs. Axiom Cordages Limited.; (2020) SCC Online Bom 781, further held that in any case, FEMA does not constitute the fundamental policy of Indian law and “a violation of FEMA, even if assumed to be correct, would not render the Award unenforceable.” The Court also went on to hold an alternative that since the Award, instead of enforcing the Put Option, simply awards damages to the petitioner for the breach of the obligation by the respondent and its WOS to procure a third party non-resident purchaser of shares, the award can be simply seen as ‘a money Award simpliciter without having any bearing on the public policy of India in the context of either SCRA or FEMA.’ Since Respondent requested to be  permitted to oppose the reliefs sought in the execution of the Award in a separate hearing, the Court framed another question for its consideration as to whether there should be simultaneous enforcement and execution of a Foreign Award and answered it in affirmative while relying on section 49 and decisions of the Supreme Court in Fuerst Day Lawson Ltd. vs. Jindal Exports Ltd. (2001) 6 SCC 356 and LMJ International Limited. vs. Sleepwell Industries Company Limited (2019) 5 SCC 302, wherein it was held that the enforcing court is expected to simultaneously consider the aspect of enforceability and execution at the threshold.

For the reasons stated, the Court allowed the enforcement and execution of the Arbitral Award.

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No Jurisdiction of NCLT can be Invoked if Termination of Contract is Unrelated to Insolvency of Corporate Debtor

In the recent case of TATA Consultancy Services Limited v. Vishal Ghisulal Jain, Resolution Professional, SK Wheels Private Limited  in Civil Appeal No 3045 of 2020, the Bench of Hon’ble Apex Court consisting of Dr. Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, J and A S Bopanna J, decided an appeal preferred against the order of National Company Law Appellate Tribunal  (NCLAT) upholding an ad-interim stay granted by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for staying termination by the Appellant of Facilities Agreement executed with the Corporate Debtor (SK Wheels Private Limited).

The Facilities Agreement obligated the Corporate Debtor to provide premises with certain specifications and facilities to the Appellant. The termination clause of the Facilities Agreement entitled the parties to terminate the agreement immediately by written notice to the other party provided that a material breach committed by the latter is not cured within thirty days of the receipt of the notice.

On account of alleged multiple lapses by the Corporate Debtor in fulfilling its contractual obligations, which were not cured satisfactorily, despite Appellant writing various e-mail communications, the Appellant issued the termination notice dated 10.06.2019 which immediately came into effect. This was subsequent to the initiation of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process on 29.03.2019.

The corporate debtor denied the allegation of material breaches and challenged the termination of the Agreement on the ground that corporate debtor had cured the issues highlighted by the Appellant and that the Appellant did not serve mandatory notice of 30 days.

When RP filed application under section 60(5)(c) of the IBC, NCLT granted ad-interim stay on termination of the Agreement stating that it is the duty of Resolution Professional to preserve and protect the assets of the ‘Corporate Debtor’ (Section 25 of the IBC) along with the fact that moratorium under section 14 is imposed to ensure the smooth functioning of the Corporate Debtor and accordingly, granted stay on termination of the Agreement. The Order was upheld by NCLAT.

On Appeal, it was argued before the Supreme Court that section 14 shall not be applicable as it is the Appellant who is availing the services of the Corporate Debtor and the Facilities Agreement was not the sole contract of the corporate debtor, termination of which would lead to its corporate death. The Appellant also insisted on third party’s contractual right of termination and argued that IBC does not permit a statutory override of all contracts entered with the Corporate Debtor. Further, it was argued that the obligation under section 25 cannot be stretched to convert a determinable commercial contract into a non-terminable contract. The Appellant further challenged the exercise of residuary jurisdiction by the NCLT under Section 60(5)(c) of the IBC to decide a contractual dispute.

The Appellant further submitted that the ratio in Gujarat Urja Vikas v. Amit Gupta & Ors [(2021) 7 SCC 209] shall not be applicable since in the present matter, the contract in question was the sole contract of the corporate debtor, and the termination of the contract by the third party was merely on the ground of initiation of CIRP without there being any contractual default on part of the corporate debtor.

On the other hand, it was argued on behalf of the RP that firstly, the Appellant had not served the 30 day notice and secondly, the judgment in Gujarat Urja Vikas shall apply since the corporate debtor had only one source of income left out of the two when one dealership was already terminated before the initiation of CIRP.

Accordingly, the Court framed two issues for its consideration -:

 (i) Whether the NCLT can exercise its residuary jurisdiction under Section 60(5)(c) of the IBC to adjudicate upon the contractual dispute between the parties; and

(ii) Whether in the exercise of such a residuary jurisdiction, it can impose an ad-interim stay on the termination of the Facilities Agreement?

The Apex Court analysed the arbitration clause provided in the Agreement along with the provision under Section 238 of the IBC which provides that the IBC overrides other laws, including any instrument having effect by virtue of law. The Court accordingly observed that the Facilities Agreement, being an ‘instrument’ under Section 238 of the IBC, can be overridden by the provisions of the IBC.

On analysis of section 60(5)(c) of the IBC, the Court observed that the existence of arbitration clause does not oust the jurisdiction of the NCLT to exercise its residuary powers under Section 60(5)(c) to adjudicate disputes relating to the insolvency of the Corporate Debtor. The Court further clarified that while RP can approach the Adjudicatory Authority for adjudication of disputes which relate to the insolvency resolution process, however, “when the dispute arises dehors the insolvency of the Corporate Debtor, the RP must apply to the Adjudicatory Autority.”

With respect to the objection by the Appellant that the adjudicatory Authority has, through its order, changed the nature of the Agreement from determinable to non-terminable, the Court clarified that intervention of NCLT/NCLAT, which are vested with responsibility of ascertaining the survival of the Corporate Debtor, cannot be said to be re-writing of the contract.

On the question of applicability of section 14, the Court agreed that section 14 shall not be applicable in the facts of the present case since the Appellant is neither supplying any goods or services to the corporate debtor in terms of Section 14 (2) nor is it recovering any property that is in possession or occupation of the corporate debtor as the owner or lessor of such property as envisioned under Section 14 (1) (d). The Appellant is, in fact only availing of the services of the Corporate Debtor by using the property that has been leased to it by the Corporate Debtor.

The Court, however, while referring to Gujarat Urja, was quick to add that jurisdiction of NCLT is not limited by Section 14 and that it can exercise its residuary jurisdiction under Section 60(5)(c) to adjudicate on questions of law and fact that relate to or arise during an insolvency resolution process. It was quoted from the judgment of Gujarat Urja – “If the jurisdiction of NCLT were to be confined to actions prohibited by Section 14 of IBC, there would have been no requirement for the legislature to enact Section 60(5)(c) of IBC. Section 60(5)(c) would be rendered otiose if Section 14 is held to be exhaustive of the grounds of judicial intervention contemplated under IBC in matters of preserving the value of the corporate debtor and its status as a “going concern”.

Having laid down the background, the Court went on to analyse the facts of the case. It was observed that the termination by the Appellant was not motivated by insolvency but by Corporate Debtor clearly having failed to fulfil its contractual obligations which the Appellant had brought to the attention of the corporate debtor before the initiation of CIRP through various e-mails. The deficiency of service was also highlighted in the Termination Notice by the Appellant.

In this background, the Court distinguished the facts in Gujarat Urja where the contract in question was terminated on the ground of insolvency itself which, as per the contract, constituted an event of default. In other words, the contractual dispute between the parties arose in relation to the insolvency of the corporate debtor and therefore it was amenable to the jurisdiction of the NCLT under Section 60(5)(c). This Court quoted from the judgment that “….NCLT has jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes, which arise solely from or which relate to the insolvency of the corporate debtor… The nexus with the insolvency of the corporate debtor must exist”.

Therefore, while heavily relying on the reasoning in the judgment of Gujarat Urja, the Apex Court laid down the law that the residuary jurisdiction of the NCLT cannot be invoked if the termination of a contract is based on grounds unrelated to the insolvency of the corporate debtor and since NCLT has no jurisdiction in such matters, the NCLT had incorrectly imposed an ad-interim stay on the termination of the Facilities Agreement.

Additionally, the Court also issued a note of caution for the NCLT/NCLAT regarding interference with a party’s contractual right to terminate a contract in the following words – “Even if the contractual dispute arises in relation to the insolvency, a party can be restrained from terminating the contract only if it is central to the success of the CIRP. Crucially, the termination of the contract should result in the corporate death of the Corporate Debtor”. The Court finally observed that NCLT had failed to apply its mind to “the centrality of the Facilities Agreement to the success of the CIRP and Corporate Debtor’s survival as a going concern” and therefore, the judgment of NCLAT that confirmed NCLT order of ad-interim stay on termination was set aside.

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PIL to exclude healthcare services from purview of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, dismissed

In a Public Interest Litigation No. 58 of 2021 [Medicos Legal Action Group v. Union of India], a Trust approached the High Court of Judicature at Bombay, to declare that services performed by healthcare service providers (“HSPs”) are not included within the purview of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (“2019 Act”) and to direct all consumer fora within the territorial jurisdiction of this Court not to accept complaints filed under the 2019 Act against HSPs. The Trust heavily relied on the parliamentary debates and statement of Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution on the Consumer Protection Bill, 2018 that ‘healthcare’ had been deliberately kept out of the 2019 Act. Therefore, according to the Trust, since the 2019 Act having been brought into force upon repeal of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (“1986 Act”), registration of complaints, which are filed against doctors by the consumer fora in the State of Maharashtra are illegal.

The Court compared the definition of ‘service’ as given in Section 2(1)(o) of the 1986 Act and section 2(42) of the 2019 Act and observed that there is no material difference between the two and the only term added subsequently under 2019 Act is ‘telecom’.

The Court went on to observe that even in the 1986 legislation, the definition of ‘service’ did not include the services rendered by the doctors. However, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that the Consumer Act is applicable in case of services by a medical practitioner. The Court heavily relied on the landmark case of Indian Medical Association Vs. V. P. Shantha & Ors ((1995) 6 SCC 651) as a binding precedent where it was held that “Service rendered to a patient by a medical practitioner (except where the doctor renders service free of charge to every patient or under a contract of personal service), by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment, both medicinal and surgical, would fall within the ambit of ‘service’ as defined in Section 2(1)(o) of the Act.”

In the matter of Indian Medical Association, the Supreme Court hadclarified that there is a difference between ‘contract of personal service’ and ‘contract for personal services’. According to the Court, “[I]n the absence of a relationship of master and servant between the patient and medical practitioner, the service rendered by a medical practitioner to the patient cannot be regarded as service rendered under a ‘contract of personal service’. Such service is service rendered under a `contract for personal services’ and is not covered by exclusionary clause of the definition of ‘service’ contained in Section 2(1)(o) of the Act.”. To further bring clarity, it was held that the expression ‘contract of personal service’ in case of a medical practitioner will apply in case of employment of a medical officer for the purpose of rendering medical service to the employer. In such arrangement, “the service rendered by a medical officer to his employer under the contract of employment would be outside the purview of ‘service’ as defined in Section 2(1)(o) of the Act”.

The Court in Indian Medical Association also discussed various scenarios where the medical services may be given free of cost. Broadly, services` rendered – (i) free of charge by a medical practitioner attached to a hospital/Nursing home or a medical officer employed in a hospital/Nursing home where such services are rendered free of charge to everybody and (ii) at a Government hospital/health centre/dispensary or non-Government hospital/Nursing home, where no charge whatsoever is taken from any person availing the services, would not be “service” as defined in Section 2(1)(o) of the Act. This position shall remain as it is even if a token registration fee has been charged from the patients.

The Court further listed the scenarios where a medical service will fall within the purview of the expression ‘service’ under the 1986 Act. As a general rule, service rendered by hospitals/nursing homes where charges are required to be paid by the persons availing such services, will constitute a ‘service’ under the Act. However, the following services shall additionally fall within the definition – they are – (i) Service rendered at a Government and non-Government hospital/health centres/nursing homes where charges are required to be paid by persons who are in a position to pay and persons who cannot afford to pay are rendered service free of charge;  (ii) when services are availed by a person who is covered by an insurance policy for medical care where under the charges for consultation, diagnosis and medical treatment are borne by the insurance company; and (iii) when the employer bears the expenses of medical treatment of an employee and his family members dependent on him.

While addressing the precise premise taken by the Trust, the Court referred to State of Travancore-Cochin vs. Bombay Co. Ltd. AIR 1952 SC 366  where in Justice Patanjali Shastri had made an acute observation regarding the relevance of speeches in course of debate in a Parliament. It was observed that opinion in such speeches at best can be indicative of the subjective opinion of the speaker. The Court also referred to other cases decided by the Hon’ble Supreme Court where in it was held that ‘speeches made on the floor of the Parliament are not admissible as extrinsic aids to the interpretation of statutory provisions’ because a statute is the expression of the collective intention of the Legislature as a whole and any statement made by an individual, albeit a Minister, of the intention and object of the Act, cannot be used to cut down the generality of the words used in the statute. On this basis, the Court found that the submissions made by the Trust as least relevant.

The Court also considered the submission made in the PIL that ‘health care’ was initially included in the definition of the term “service” in the Bill but the same was deleted after extensive debates. The Court in this regard opined that the parliamentarians might have thought of not including `health care’ as the same has already been understood and interpreted by the Supreme Court in Indian Medical Association and such express inclusion would have amounted to a ‘mere surplusage’. The Court further observed that “If at all the Parliament while repealing and replacing the 1986 Act with the 2019 Act had intended to give a meaning to the term “service” different from the one given by the Supreme Court, such intention ought to have been reflected in clear words by a specific exclusion of ‘health care’ from the purview of the 2019 Act.

With this background and reasoning, the Court dismissed the PIL as being ‘thoroughly misconceived’ and imposed a cost of Rs.50,000/- to be paid to the Maharashtra State Legal Services Authority.

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